31 Comments
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Khalifa's avatar

A mathematical question: how do you get to the -1.7% contraction? I know it’s (new-old/old), but i don’t understand the 0.1.

Thanks you!

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Compounding Quality's avatar

It's because we estimate that the valuation will normalize in 10 years. That's where the 0.1 comes from :)

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John B Denley's avatar

With the Earnings Growth model, are you usually conservative with the multiples?

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Compounding Quality's avatar

Absolutely.

Better to surprise on the upside :)

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Boris S.'s avatar

That was very easy to read and follow, Pieter! Well done! 🙂

I need to re-read this and run through the exercise in my journal to have the lesson glue itself to my brain. 🖋️

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Compounding Quality's avatar

Always feeling blessed to see you here, Boris!

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rxamao's avatar

thanks for sharing this simple and valuable model

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Compounding Quality's avatar

It's a true honor!

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Gary Karr's avatar

Thank you for continuing to write these in a simple, straightforward way.

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Compounding Quality's avatar

It's a true honor, Gary!

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Joel Sherwood's avatar

Thanks for detailing the model. Always helpful to see how others value companies.

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Compounding Quality's avatar

I appreciate you, Joel!

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Dan's avatar

I would replace Dividend Yield with Total Shareholder Yield, which includes share buybacks and debt payments.

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Compounding Quality's avatar

Buyback is included in the EPS Growth. That's why we just use the dividend yield.

Otherwise you would include the buyback yield twice. :)

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Sigge's avatar

How did you get that the fair P/E was 16x ?

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Robert Butman's avatar

Yeah I couldn’t figure how the P/E ratio in example was 16x either.

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The Curious LP's avatar

Think it’s just an assumption he was making as an illustration

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Compounding Quality's avatar

What The Curious LP mentions is correct.

To determine a fair Exit PE, the Microsoft example provides more guidance

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Peter Nielsen's avatar

@Pieter, do you always use the 0.1 in the EEG model for all the stocks in the Watchlist? I am trying to work backwards on all the data to understand and sanity check the different expected return numbers :D

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Compounding Quality's avatar

@Peter Nielsen when you assume that the forward PE will go back to normal after 10 years, multiplying it by 10 is indeed what I do.

When you want to do the calculations with a rerating within 5 years, your multiplier should be 0.2x

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Peter Nielsen's avatar

Follow up question. In the Watchlist sheet. Sometimes you use the 10 Year Average Forward PE as the Fair Exit PE. Other times you adjust. For example Adobe:

Fair Exit Multiple 25

10 Year Average Forward PE 32.

A -21% downward adjustment.

For some you just round it it seems, and others you use the exact 10 year average.

What causes you to adjust? Caution?

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Compounding Quality's avatar

Correct. The better I know the company, the better I can make calculations myself.

When I’m not sure yet, I use the 10-year average. :)

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Free Willaert's avatar

It's a nice article, no doubt. But as far as I can find, it does not explain *why*.

Translating that into a simple question: *why* does it make sense to *sum* the dividend per stock price with the change rate (!) of the earnings per share?

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Free Willaert's avatar

Hoping to get an answer but for some reason my question dropped almost to the bottom.

It's a serious question, I do hope to understand the logic of the model.

Or, if the model is just to get a quick but valuable insight and it's not about strict logic, please tell me 😅

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Compounding Quality's avatar

I replied to it but for some reason it disappeared. Didn’t you get a notification of my reply? In that case I’ll write it again. :)

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Free Willaert's avatar

Nope :( Got an email about this response, but nothing previous.

Meanwhile I have an intuitive understanding, but I'd still appreciate to understand the actual logic :)

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Compounding Quality's avatar

So here’s a visual explaining the earnings growth model: https://www.google.com/url?sa=i&url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.compoundingquality.net%2Fp%2Fearnings-growth-model&psig=AOvVaw0hfJRUHcsSHBA3uAJAGgfl&ust=1748006232666000&source=images&cd=vfe&opi=89978449&ved=0CBQQjRxqFwoTCIDxgeaUt40DFQAAAAAdAAAAABAE

In this model, I assume the Forward PE goes back to ‘normal’ (reversion to the mean) within 10 years. 1/10 = 0.1 —> That’s why a factor of 0.1x is used.

It’s a smart idea to also do the calculations under the assumption that the valuation goes back to normal in 5 years. In that case, you need to use 0.2x as a multiplier (1/5). You’ll see that some high-growth companies will be less attractively valued when you do this.

Does this make sense?

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Khalifa's avatar

Ok i see it now! Sorry! You are dividing the multiple compression over the 10 years to smooth it out. Thank you for explaining.

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Compounding Quality's avatar

Exactly!

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Khalifa's avatar

So then if it’s 9 years it’s 0.09? Sorry for the questions?!

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Compounding Quality's avatar

Than it would be 100/9 :)

When it would be 5 years, you multiply it by 0.2x

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